Ancient

Egyptian Spoken Language

First statement in ‘Alsaadawi’s Theory on True Hieroglyphs’ is:

Egyptian spoken language has never changed

one bit from far pre-dynastic times up today
 

1. Introduction:

2. Egyptian Language:

The following message was posted online on February 2002:

< message > 

From: "Alsaadawi"
Date: Mon Feb 26, 2001 7:06 am
Subject: Egyptian Language

Hello Mishall,

You ask,

>> am really interested to know and learn egyptian language....would u tell me more about it? <<

>> is it arabic or some other language? <<

Egyptian language has two forms:

1 = Oral or spoken Egyptian language.
2 = Written Egyptian language.

I'll explain both in brief.

1 = Spoken Egyptian language:

1A = If we track AE graphemes, or written Hieroglyphic signs, we find that they were extremely stable from far pre-dynastic times up to year 390 AD. This means simply that spoken AE language was also stable during this long period of time.

1B = Egyptian Copts preserved spoken Egyptian Language from being lost during the period 330 BC up to now, by insisting to preserve their AE names and everyday spoken language, such as:

3aziz - Ghali - Nakhlah - Mo7ib - Samir - Monir - Gameel - Magdi - Sam3an - Fawzi - H'ilmi - Khaleel - Bushra - Labeeb - Wahba - Shakir - Milaad - Amin - Ghlalib - Farag - H'abeeb, etc.

This means simply that:

Egyptian Spoken (oral) language has not changed since far pre-dynastic times and up to now. Egyptian spoken language has gained many foreign words but its main core has not changed.

1C = Arabic spoken language is only one part of wide Egyptian spoken language. Any Egyptian can easily count hundreds of Egyptian words that have no equivalent in classic Arabic. This what we call it 'colloquial' Egyptian language or '3ammiyyah'.

I cast here one example only:

Egyptian peoples use an everyday negation word that has no equivalent in classic Arabic, it is (sh) or (ma..sh).

For example:

The word (rou7 / rouH) which means (go) has no equivalent in classic Arabic.

Egyptians say (ma - tro7- sh) = (matroHsh),

which means (don't go).

You'll never find the word (troHsh) or (matroHsh) in classic Arabic !!

Likewise, there are hundreds of such words.

Conclusion:

[[ Current Egyptians speak exactly as their AE Forefathers did ]]
 

2 = Written Egyptian language:

It is classified into 4 basic eras:

2A = from pre-dynastic times up to year 390 AD;

In this era Hieroglyphic line was mastering without any significant changes.

2B = from 330 BC up to year 390 AD, Greek line was used mainly in Alexandria.

2C = from 390 - 700 AD, Coptic line was used. Coptic line is Geek line plus 7 Demotic letters added to it. There were several trials to let Coptic line replace AE Hieroglyphs but these trials failed because Coptic line does not match phonetics of Egyptian spoken language and was deserted by Copts themselves when they failed to write their spoken language.

For example, there is no Coptic letter that indicates phoneme (3), which is equivalent to [D36] in Hieroglyphs. Therefore, one cannot write the Coptic name (3aziz), for example, in Coptic line. He'd write it as (aziz), which is a distorted sound. Then, how about thousands of such words?

2D = Arabic line is used from 700 AD up to now because it matches all phonetics of oral Egyptian language without any exception.

Best Regards,

Ossama Alsaadawi
 

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The proof from the Aramaic written language:

Very Important:

 

click on picture to enlarge

From "Matthew 26:26" we read (taken from Aramaic):

 
**** aqbbiLu Leta2kulu .. da hu gismi ****

= ** come to eat .. this is my body **
 

Translated to: (take this and eat .. this is my body)

Also from "Matthew 26:27-28" we read:

**** aqbbiLu ishfotu .. da hu dammi ****

= ** come and drink .. this is my blood **

Translated to: (take and drink .. this is my blood)

 

From Mark 15:34:

**** elahi .. elahi .. laih sebteni ****

= ** my God .. my God .. why you left me? **

Translated to: (my God, my God, why you have forsaken me?)
 

This proves definitely that Jesus used to speak EXACTLY like modern Egyptian

and hence proves that:

**Egyptian spoken language has NEVER changed one bit from

the early time of Jesus up today**
 

Ossama Alsaadawi
18 April, 2004 AD

 

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From Keino:
posted 12 December 2003 04:33 PM

Interesting stuff! What I would like to know is are we talking about the "ancient" ancient egyptian language or the "more modern" ancient egyptian language. I know that Ancient egypt was conquered and ruled by several empires during its latter era so there should be remnants of all of these "occupations" in the language? Also I'm sure the language naturally evolved and changed like all languages do over time. I'm I making sense? If not please fill me in. Is copt really ancient egyptian language with influences from the dominating cultures that occupied?


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Alsaadawi-4
posted 13 December 2003 12:25 AM

Keino, all your questions are quite logic.
 

>>are we talking about the "ancient" ancient egyptian language or the "more modern" ancient egyptian language<<

They both are the same. Here I would like to repeat the first statement of 'Alsaadawi's Theory on True Hieroglyphs':

**the Egyptian spoken language has Never changed one bit from far pre-dynastic times up today**

I introduced a huge volume of evidence to prove this evident Fact.

>>I know that Ancient egypt was conquered and ruled by several empires during its latter era so there should be remnants of all of these "occupations" in the language?<<

On the contrary, Egyptian language was intensely crept, conducted and converged into the weak languages of all those invaders. The Greek language, for example, is a direct derivation of the Egyptian language in many aspects either in written graphemes or in oral utterance. You can simply check this by comparing the basic Greek alphabetic graphemes and their corresponding phones with the AE Hieroglyphs and their corresponding phones.

 

Even the English alphabets are pure imitation and duplication of AE Hieroglyphs

either in graphical or phonetic construction

Here are only some few examples:

 
English a = G1 = the Egyptian vulture.

 

 
English b = D58 = the Egyptian leg.

 

 
English c, s = S29 = the Egyptian folded cloth.

English D = D46 = the Egyptian hand.

 English e = M17 = the Egyptian reed.

 
English f = G40 = the Egyptian flying bird.
 

 
English G = W11 = the Egyptian jar.
 

 English h = O4 = the Egyptian shelter.
 

English L = V13 = the Egyptian rope.
 

English m = U31v = the Egyptian mom sign (moor / anchor). .

 English N = N35 = the Egyptian rippled water.
 

English O = G43 = the Egyptian quail chick that comes out of eggshell
 

English q = N29 = the Egyptian seat.
 

 
English R = E23 = the Egyptian lion.
 

English T = S36 = the Egyptian umbrella.
 

English V = F13 = the Egyptian horns.

 

English X = Q4 = the Egyptian head-rest.
 

English y = N23 = the Egyptian canal.

 

English Z = I15 = the Egyptian serpent.

Notice that all these phonemes are equivalent in both graphical and phonetic values.

Ossama Alsaadawi

أسامة السعداوي

>>Also I'm sure the language naturally evolved and changed like all languages do over time. I'm I making sense?<<

No. I explained before that the Egyptian language is really a unique unchangeable language because of its bilateral phonetic values. It means simply that it could constitute infinite number of words and still have logic meanings. All imported words from other languages are of Egyptian origin due to this distinct quality. There are hundreds of examples. I cast here two examples only:

The English word 'hello' or 'hallow' which the Egyptians say now is in fact of Egyptian origin given by the grapheme 'hl' from which the Egyptian word 'hala' or 'ahlan' evolved. 'hala' means in Egyptian 'welcome'.

The English word 'free' or 'far' is evolved from the Egyptian grapheme 'fr' or [N31] that was conducted also into Arabic as 'farr' which means 'flee' or 'to be free'.

>>Is copt really ancient egyptian language with influences from the dominating cultures that occupied?<<

No. Coptic was a foreign trial to replace the Egyptian writing lines like Hieroglyphs and Demotic by a modified Greek line. This trial was born dead because Greek alphabets do not match the Egyptian phonetic values. The Copts themselves are the first peoples to reject it and refuse to use it. That is why the Coptic writing line is a dead one. On the other hand the Copts never changed their Egyptian spoken language that they still use it up today. This is different than some Greek religious statements that Copts use in Churches. Some Coptic people try hard to convince others that this limited Greek religious wording was the real spoken Coptic. But most of the Copts in Egypt refuse all these trials and insist to name their children after the real and True Egyptian language. Just talk to any Coptic in Egypt and ask him about his name and the names of his mother and father and grandfathers, you find that they are all pure Egyptian but Not the Claimed Vague Dead Coptic.

Ossama Alsaadawi

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Kem-Au
posted 13 December 2003 11:43 AM

Alsaadawi-4,

your post is very interesting. i must admit i'm particularly fascinated by you comparisons with the kemite symbols and the english alphabet. there are some definite similarities. i've never noticed that. but it makes some sense because the english alphabet basically comes from latin, which was influenced by greek, which was influenced by kemet.

thank you for posting this.

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Alsaadawi-4
posted 13 December 2003 12:53 PM

Thank you Kem-Au for your sincere and informative words. I always believed that there are many truthful savants who could rightly judge the good work and appreciate it. I cordially acknowledge your words.